Please assist me in 6-30

Answer:
Yes to both.
Step-by-step explanation:
It is true that
[tex]\dfrac{x}{y}=1 \iff x=y[/tex]
In fact, if you know that x/y=1, just multiply both sides by y to get x=y. On the other hand, if you know that x=y (and they are not zero), you can divide both sides by y to get x/y=1.
Since the two expressions are equivalent, you can always use Phil's or Don's expression, at will.