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how does what Aritostle calls our “moral sense” play into the concept of tragedy ?

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In this chapter from Poetics, Aristotle seeks to define “tragedy” as it relates to ... of what Aristotle considers to be an ideal tragedy and construct a working definition. ... single tragic quality; it neither satisfies the moral sense nor calls forth pity or fear. ... such plays, if well worked out, are the most tragic in effect; and Euripides, 9

When describing the quality of Tragedy, Aristotle mentions that pity and fear should be prime attributes of such a play. To demonstrate the quality of pity, there should be no appeal to the moral sense.

  • For example, a plot where a villain suffers a misfortune will appeal to our moral sense because we believe that he should suffer for his sins.

Aristotle was explaining that in our bid to evoke the sense of pity and fear in a tragedy, we should not use plots that appeal to our moral sense.

Such plots that show the vengeance an evil person suffers will not be successful in causing pity in the audience.

He recommended a character between the extremes, who is not so good and whose calamity was brought about by an error of judgment and not because of vice or depravity.

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https://brainly.com/question/11801539